The more I research this, the more confusing it gets. I just researched IRS documents to see if I could find a definition of the term "binding purchase agreement". I found an April 2013 IRS guidance document that updates its definition of a "binding written contract". While not exactly on point (i.e., it was not written to address EV's )it appears to be pretty close from what I can see. I am not a lawer, only a lay person who wrote proposed statutory language and regulations in a former life 35 to 40 years ago , so take it for what it is worth. You can read the IRS document by clicking
HERE. It states:
(1) Binding written contract . A contract is binding only if it is enforceable under local law against the taxpayer or a predecessor and d
oes not limit damages to a specified amount (for example, by use of a liquidated damages provision).
For this purpose, a contractual provision that limits damages to an amount equal to at least five percent of the total contract price will not be treated as limiting damages to a specified amount. For additional guidance regarding the definition of a binding contract, see § 1.168(k)-1(b)(4)(ii)(A)-(D).
My reading of it is that unless you actually have the final buy/sell agreement that you sign right before purchase, you are screwed.
I can't wait to see what Lucid come out with on this issue, if, in fact, they do.
If anyone has better insight, I sure would appreciate you posting it.