The reason people keep bringing this up is because the IRS provided guidance that specifically called out liquidated damages here (copied below):
https://www.irs.gov/businesses/plug-in-electric-vehicle-credit-irc-30-and-irc-30d
What Is a Written Binding Contract?
In general, a written contract is
binding if it is
enforceable under State law and does not limit damages to a specified amount (for example, by use of a liquidated damages provision or the forfeiture of a deposit). While the enforceability of a contract under State law is a facts-and-circumstances determination to be made under relevant State law, if a customer has made a significant non-refundable deposit or down payment, it is an indication of a binding contract.
For tax purposes in general, a contract provision that limits damages to an amount equal to at least 5 percent of the total contract price is not treated as limiting damages to a
specified amount. For example, if a customer has made a
non-refundable deposit or down payment of 5 percent of the total contract price, it is an indication of a binding contract. A contract is binding even if subject to a condition, as long as the condition is not within the control of either party. A contract will continue to be binding if the parties make insubstantial changes in its terms and conditions.
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DISCLAIMER: THIS IS NOT LEGAL ADVICE AND I AM NOT COMPETENT TO PROVIDE ANYONE WITH LEGAL ADVICE ON THIS SUBJECT. CONSULT A PROFESSIONAL AND NOT SOMEONE ON THIS FORUM. PLEASE. AT THIS POINT, IT'S JUST PURE ENTERTAINMENT.
There are some linguistics issues mixed in with a bit contracts law if we just (inappropriately) ignore the tax law questions. This has pretty much all been discussed in this thread before, but I do enjoy the ongoing debate.
First, why the hell is the IRS calling out “
enforceability” as a pre-requisite for “
binding”? Is the IRS trying to use the term "binding" to mean "specific performance"? That is, if either party breaches the contract, can the non-breaching party bring the other to court and have the court require them to perform the contract (for us, pay the full price and take delivery of the car; for Lucid, deliver the car)? Or is the IRS asking whether the liquidated damages provisions are enforceable, thus making the contract binding? Maybe they just mean something else, like not being illegal. As noted again later in this post, this explanation from the IRS was not written carefully.
Point (A)(1): Enforceable under State law
If we tried to sue Lucid in court to nullify the contract and return our money (us in breach), the question we would care about is whether the liquidated damages provision is enforceable. The enforceability of liquidated damages provisions is actually not a simple question, and could vary widely on a state by state basis. However, I would not foresee many states sympathizing with a buyer who is in breach of this contract.
If Lucid wants to cancel the contract (Lucid in breach), then our remedies are also limited to $1K according to the limitation of liabilities section (technically not referred to as liquidated damages). So if we got our deposit back from Lucid, does that mean the contract was enforceable all along? Maybe, but for the sake of moving on with this discussion, let's just say it's
enforceable under most state laws.
Point (A)(2): Does not limit damages to a specified amount
So now we see that a "
binding" contract apparently also requires that the contract "does not limit damages to a specified amount (for example, by use of a liquidated damages provision or the forfeiture of a deposit)." Well, we definitely fail this test. $1K liquidated damages in both directions. Damages are limited to the
specified amount of $1,000. It's specified in the contract, and also called liquidated damages.
So, end of debate, right? Wait, what about the proclamation that "a contract provision that limits damages to an amount equal to at least 5 percent of the total contract price is not treated as limiting damages to a
specified amount." Okay, so "an amount ... is not treated as ... an amount"? At this point, the contracts law discussion is over, because we aren't trying to enforce a contract with the government based on this language (although if someone wants to IRAC their takings clause analysis here, I would be interested to read it).
Hmm... maybe an example would help this debate. Okay, so "if a customer has made a
non-refundable deposit or down payment of 5 percent of the total contract price, it is an indication of a
binding contract." So 5% is only limited to down payments, but non-refundable deposits can be in any amount and that counts? This sentence can technically be read two ways, but it's pretty clear they meant that a 5% deposit/down payment counts as "significant" if you read the two preceding sentences. However, that fact has not stopped people from honing in on the "or" as their Perry Mason moment.
At any rate, on to the real question.
Point (B): For Tax Purposes
Now if we forget all of this and turn to the fact that this is a tax question, you will see that the 5% example being "significant" is "
for tax purposes." This entire debate is about whether or not we get a tax credit. The transition rules exist so that people who should have obtained their tax credits under the old rules are not screwed out of their money. This tax credit is a "thank you" for buying an EV. But we haven't actually bought an EV, and that's the problem. We have given a company $1,000 in the hopes that we would qualify under this rule, but it should have been at least 5% if we actually wanted to qualify. The IRS has provided this 5% rule, which has absolutely nothing to do with contracts law (I want pincites from anyone who says otherwise), as a way of recognizing the fact that you have really committed to doing something you're trying to claim on your taxes.
I know this will not end the debate, but maybe it will help a few people understand that this is as far as we can really take this.
P.S. It's extremely clear that taking delivery by the end of the year is okay because that is a
separate rule. Lucid has no issues saying that's the case, but if you ask them what happens if you take delivery next year, they will tell you to talk to a tax consultant because they have all been trained not to opine on what looks like a terrible scheme to get everyone tax credits that only resulted in Lucid taking everyone's money for absolutely no benefit to the customer.